tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-12535639.post112538633864684710..comments2024-02-26T06:55:41.876-08:00Comments on Fermat's Last Theorem: Fermat's Little TheoremLarry Freemanhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/06906614246430481533noreply@blogger.comBlogger7125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-12535639.post-74310006703108791012013-01-11T02:08:40.757-08:002013-01-11T02:08:40.757-08:00From Fermat’s little theorem to Fermat’s Last Theo...From Fermat’s little theorem to Fermat’s Last Theorem<br /><br />http://primemath.wordpress.com/2012/11/16/from-fermat-little-theorem-to-fermat-last-theorem/<br />PDF<br />http://primemath.files.wordpress.com/2013/01/fltflt.pdf<br /><br />Please read . It's short.Anonymoushttps://www.blogger.com/profile/16325281137003696950noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-12535639.post-74314739935127598532013-01-11T02:07:04.029-08:002013-01-11T02:07:04.029-08:00From Fermat’s little theorem to Fermat’s Last Theo...From Fermat’s little theorem to Fermat’s Last Theorem<br /><br />http://primemath.wordpress.com/2012/11/16/from-fermat-little-theorem-to-fermat-last-theorem/<br />PDF<br />http://primemath.files.wordpress.com/2013/01/fltflt.pdf<br /><br />Please read . It's short.Anonymoushttps://www.blogger.com/profile/16325281137003696950noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-12535639.post-46605927831192503962008-02-03T05:05:00.000-08:002008-02-03T05:05:00.000-08:00Thank you for your clear proofThank you for your clear proofUnknownhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/14798736505968326652noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-12535639.post-1167562473273583032006-12-31T02:54:00.000-08:002006-12-31T02:54:00.000-08:00Hi Ulises,We can make the supposition because we c...Hi Ulises,<BR/><BR/>We can make the supposition because we can always assume that j=i. In this case, ia = ja (mod p) since ia - ja = ia - ia = 0 which is divisible by p.<BR/><BR/>-LarryLarry Freemanhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/06906614246430481533noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-12535639.post-1167561900814473482006-12-31T02:45:00.000-08:002006-12-31T02:45:00.000-08:00Hello Larry,Thanks for your answer.I can see that ...Hello Larry,<BR/>Thanks for your answer.<BR/>I can see that if ja=ia (mod p) then j=i (mod p) but when you proof the little theorem you say: "(a) Assume that 2 of the values are equal to the same congruence: let's say ia, ja"<BR/>My question is: Why is this supposition always true?<BR/>Thanks.Anonymousnoreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-12535639.post-1167530354220353472006-12-30T17:59:00.000-08:002006-12-30T17:59:00.000-08:00Hi Ulises,Thanks for your question. :-)In the proo...Hi Ulises,<BR/><BR/>Thanks for your question. :-)<BR/><BR/>In the proof, I am trying to show that for any value i, j, if ia = ja (mod p), then i=j.<BR/><BR/>Keep in mind, I am not proving that ia = ja (mod p); I am showing that <I>if</I> they are equal (mod p), then the conclusion follows.<BR/><BR/>This is a <I>conditional proof</I>. If it so happens that ia = ja (mod p), then this implies that i = j.<BR/><BR/>-LarryLarry Freemanhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/06906614246430481533noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-12535639.post-1167516265138899712006-12-30T14:04:00.000-08:002006-12-30T14:04:00.000-08:00Hello!I'm a student from Barcelona, Spain, Europe....Hello!<BR/>I'm a student from Barcelona, Spain, Europe. And I'm making a work about test primality.<BR/>I'm trying to understand this proof but I get lost in the 4th point letter a.<BR/>I would be really pleased if you answer my question.<BR/>I can't understand why ia is equal to ja. How can I proof I'll always find some ia=ja (mod p)?<BR/><BR/>Sorry if this a stupid question. And excuse my low level in english.<BR/>Thanks for all.<BR/>Nice Blog! :)Anonymousnoreply@blogger.com